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Which of the following statements is NOT true about enzyme?
Correct A: Enzymes also have valuable industrial and medical applications. The fermenting of wine, the leavening of bread, curdling of cheese, and brewing of beer have been practiced from the earliest times, but not until the 19th century were these reactions understood to be the result of the catalytic activity of enzymes. Since then, enzymes have assumed increasing importance in industrial processes that involve organic chemical reactions. The uses of enzymes in medicine include killing disease-causing microorganisms, promoting wound healing, and diagnosing certain diseases.
Correct B: A large protein enzyme molecule is composed of one or more amino acid chains called polypeptide chains. The amino acid sequence determines the characteristic folding patterns of the protein’s structure, which is essential to enzyme specificity. If the enzyme is subjected to changes, such as fluctuations in temperature or pH, the protein structure may lose its integrity (denature) and its enzymatic ability. Denaturation is sometimes, but not always, reversible.
Incorrect C: All enzymes were once thought to be proteins, but since the 1980s the catalytic ability of certain nucleic acids, called ribozymes (or catalytic RNAs), has been demonstrated, refuting this axiom. Because so little is yet known about the enzymatic functioning of RNA, this discussion will focus primarily on protein enzymes.
Correct D: Bound to some enzymes is an additional chemical component called a cofactor, which is a direct participant in the catalytic event and thus is required for enzymatic activity. A cofactor may be either a coenzyme—an organic molecule, such as a vitamin—or an inorganic metal ion; some enzymes require both. A cofactor may be either tightly or loosely bound to the enzyme. If tightly connected, the cofactor is referred to as a prosthetic group.
Correct E: Enzyme synthesis and activity also are influenced by genetic control and distribution in a cell. Some enzymes are not produced by certain cells, and others are formed only when required. Enzymes are not always found uniformly within a cell; often they are compartmentalized in the nucleus, on the cell membrane, or in subcellular structures. The rates of enzyme synthesis and activity are further influenced by hormones, neurosecretions, and other chemicals that affect the cell’s internal environment.
Correct A: Enzymes also have valuable industrial and medical applications. The fermenting of wine, the leavening of bread, curdling of cheese, and brewing of beer have been practiced from the earliest times, but not until the 19th century were these reactions understood to be the result of the catalytic activity of enzymes. Since then, enzymes have assumed increasing importance in industrial processes that involve organic chemical reactions. The uses of enzymes in medicine include killing disease-causing microorganisms, promoting wound healing, and diagnosing certain diseases.
Correct B: A large protein enzyme molecule is composed of one or more amino acid chains called polypeptide chains. The amino acid sequence determines the characteristic folding patterns of the protein’s structure, which is essential to enzyme specificity. If the enzyme is subjected to changes, such as fluctuations in temperature or pH, the protein structure may lose its integrity (denature) and its enzymatic ability. Denaturation is sometimes, but not always, reversible.
Incorrect C: All enzymes were once thought to be proteins, but since the 1980s the catalytic ability of certain nucleic acids, called ribozymes (or catalytic RNAs), has been demonstrated, refuting this axiom. Because so little is yet known about the enzymatic functioning of RNA, this discussion will focus primarily on protein enzymes.
Correct D: Bound to some enzymes is an additional chemical component called a cofactor, which is a direct participant in the catalytic event and thus is required for enzymatic activity. A cofactor may be either a coenzyme—an organic molecule, such as a vitamin—or an inorganic metal ion; some enzymes require both. A cofactor may be either tightly or loosely bound to the enzyme. If tightly connected, the cofactor is referred to as a prosthetic group.
Correct E: Enzyme synthesis and activity also are influenced by genetic control and distribution in a cell. Some enzymes are not produced by certain cells, and others are formed only when required. Enzymes are not always found uniformly within a cell; often they are compartmentalized in the nucleus, on the cell membrane, or in subcellular structures. The rates of enzyme synthesis and activity are further influenced by hormones, neurosecretions, and other chemicals that affect the cell’s internal environment.
Electron transport chain occurs wherein a human cell
The initial breakdown of glucose occurs in the cell cytoplasm. This is an anaerobic reaction of cellular respiration, meaning that it does not require oxygen.
The Preparatory Reaction occurs in the matrix, or interior, of the mitochondria of cells. Here, the two pyruvate molecules from glycolysis are combined with two coenzyme A (CoA) molecules to produce two acetyl-CoA molecules and two carbon dioxide (CO2) molecules
The Krebs cycle, this series of anaerobic reactions, like the preparatory reaction, takes place in the mitochondrial matrix. Here, the two acetyl-CoA molecules from the preparatory reaction combine with a number of phosphate and nucleotide components to yield two ATP, four CO2, and a number of nucleotide intermediaries.
The Electron Transport Chain occurs inner membranes of mitochondria, oxygen finally enters the picture. The transporters in this scheme are molecules of NAD and FAD, the nucleotide intermediaries noted above. In the presence of six oxygen molecules, protons are passed from NAD and FAD to other NAD and FAD molecules down the chain, allowing ATP to be extracted at various points. The net result is a gain of 34 ATP molecules.
The initial breakdown of glucose occurs in the cell cytoplasm. This is an anaerobic reaction of cellular respiration, meaning that it does not require oxygen.
The Preparatory Reaction occurs in the matrix, or interior, of the mitochondria of cells. Here, the two pyruvate molecules from glycolysis are combined with two coenzyme A (CoA) molecules to produce two acetyl-CoA molecules and two carbon dioxide (CO2) molecules
The Krebs cycle, this series of anaerobic reactions, like the preparatory reaction, takes place in the mitochondrial matrix. Here, the two acetyl-CoA molecules from the preparatory reaction combine with a number of phosphate and nucleotide components to yield two ATP, four CO2, and a number of nucleotide intermediaries.
The Electron Transport Chain occurs inner membranes of mitochondria, oxygen finally enters the picture. The transporters in this scheme are molecules of NAD and FAD, the nucleotide intermediaries noted above. In the presence of six oxygen molecules, protons are passed from NAD and FAD to other NAD and FAD molecules down the chain, allowing ATP to be extracted at various points. The net result is a gain of 34 ATP molecules.
All of the following statements about meiosis are correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Correct A: Mitosis is usually shorter than meiosis. The process can take over 10 hours for mammalian cells in culture, budding yeast can take ~80 minutes to complete a cell cycle, whilst bacteria can divide every 20 minutes. Meiosis has various timescales in different organisms, which can be affected by several factors including temperature and environment of the organism, and the amount of nuclear DNA. The process lasts 6 hours in yeast but can last more than 40 years in human females, due to a developmental hold at prophase I, until ovulation. Other examples are 1-2 days in male fruit flies and ~ 24 days in human males.
Correct B: Meiosis is a special type of cell division, a process where a single cell divides two times to produce four haploid cells, each not only containing half the original amount of genetic information but also genetically distinct from the parent cell that gave rise to them.
Correct C: This process occurs in all sexually reproducing single-celled and multicellular eukaryotes including animals, plants, and fungi. Meiosis produces our sex cells or gametes (eggs in females and sperm in males, both haploid cells).
Correct D: Meiosis II is a mitotic division of each of the haploid cells produced in meiosis I. During prophase II, the chromosomes condense, and a new set of spindle fibers forms. The chromosomes begin moving toward the equator of the cell. During metaphase II, the centromeres of the paired chromatids align along with the equatorial plate in both cells. Then in anaphase II, the chromosomes separate at the centromeres. The spindle fibers pull the separated chromosomes toward each pole of the cell
Incorrect E: Finally, during telophase II, the chromosomes are enclosed in nuclear membranes. Cytokinesis follows, dividing the cytoplasm of the two cells. At the conclusion of meiosis, there are four haploid daughter cells that go on to develop into either sperm or egg cells.
Correct A: Mitosis is usually shorter than meiosis. The process can take over 10 hours for mammalian cells in culture, budding yeast can take ~80 minutes to complete a cell cycle, whilst bacteria can divide every 20 minutes. Meiosis has various timescales in different organisms, which can be affected by several factors including temperature and environment of the organism, and the amount of nuclear DNA. The process lasts 6 hours in yeast but can last more than 40 years in human females, due to a developmental hold at prophase I, until ovulation. Other examples are 1-2 days in male fruit flies and ~ 24 days in human males.
Correct B: Meiosis is a special type of cell division, a process where a single cell divides two times to produce four haploid cells, each not only containing half the original amount of genetic information but also genetically distinct from the parent cell that gave rise to them.
Correct C: This process occurs in all sexually reproducing single-celled and multicellular eukaryotes including animals, plants, and fungi. Meiosis produces our sex cells or gametes (eggs in females and sperm in males, both haploid cells).
Correct D: Meiosis II is a mitotic division of each of the haploid cells produced in meiosis I. During prophase II, the chromosomes condense, and a new set of spindle fibers forms. The chromosomes begin moving toward the equator of the cell. During metaphase II, the centromeres of the paired chromatids align along with the equatorial plate in both cells. Then in anaphase II, the chromosomes separate at the centromeres. The spindle fibers pull the separated chromosomes toward each pole of the cell
Incorrect E: Finally, during telophase II, the chromosomes are enclosed in nuclear membranes. Cytokinesis follows, dividing the cytoplasm of the two cells. At the conclusion of meiosis, there are four haploid daughter cells that go on to develop into either sperm or egg cells.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about eukaryotic cells?
Correct A: The primarily single-celled organisms found in the Bacteria and Archaea domains are known as prokaryotes. These organisms are made of prokaryotic cells — the smallest, simplest and most ancient cells.
Correct B: Lysosomes break down and recycle organelles and macromolecules; the endoplasmic reticulum helps build membranes and transport proteins throughout the cell.
Correct C: Biochemical reactions in a cell’s mitochondria transfer energy from fatty acids and pyruvate molecules into an energy-rich molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Subsequently, the rest of the cell’s organelles use this ATP as the source of the energy they need to operate.
Incorrect D: Recall that DNA contains the information required to build cellular proteins. In eukaryotic cells, the membrane that surrounds the nucleus — commonly called the nuclear envelope— partitions this DNA from the cell’s protein synthesis machinery, which is located in the cytoplasm. Tiny pores in the nuclear envelope, called nuclear pores, then selectively permit certain macromolecules to enter and leave the nucleus — including the RNA molecules that carry information from a cellular DNA to protein manufacturing centers in the cytoplasm. This separation of the DNA from the protein synthesis machinery provides eukaryotic cells with more intricate regulatory control over the production of proteins and their RNA intermediates.
Correct E: chloroplasts are found in plant cells and some algae, and they convert solar energy into energy-storing sugars such as glucose. Chloroplasts also produce oxygen, which makes them necessary for all life as we know it. Scientists think chloroplasts evolved from photosynthetic prokaryotes similar to modern-day cyanobacteria.
Correct A: The primarily single-celled organisms found in the Bacteria and Archaea domains are known as prokaryotes. These organisms are made of prokaryotic cells — the smallest, simplest and most ancient cells.
Correct B: Lysosomes break down and recycle organelles and macromolecules; the endoplasmic reticulum helps build membranes and transport proteins throughout the cell.
Correct C: Biochemical reactions in a cell’s mitochondria transfer energy from fatty acids and pyruvate molecules into an energy-rich molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Subsequently, the rest of the cell’s organelles use this ATP as the source of the energy they need to operate.
Incorrect D: Recall that DNA contains the information required to build cellular proteins. In eukaryotic cells, the membrane that surrounds the nucleus — commonly called the nuclear envelope— partitions this DNA from the cell’s protein synthesis machinery, which is located in the cytoplasm. Tiny pores in the nuclear envelope, called nuclear pores, then selectively permit certain macromolecules to enter and leave the nucleus — including the RNA molecules that carry information from a cellular DNA to protein manufacturing centers in the cytoplasm. This separation of the DNA from the protein synthesis machinery provides eukaryotic cells with more intricate regulatory control over the production of proteins and their RNA intermediates.
Correct E: chloroplasts are found in plant cells and some algae, and they convert solar energy into energy-storing sugars such as glucose. Chloroplasts also produce oxygen, which makes them necessary for all life as we know it. Scientists think chloroplasts evolved from photosynthetic prokaryotes similar to modern-day cyanobacteria.
The function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is NOT _________
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) is a membranous organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It is a subset of the endomembrane system of the endoplasmic reticulum. Its main functions are the synthesis of lipids, steroid hormones, the detoxification of harmful metabolic byproducts and the storage and metabolism of calcium ions within the cell. The SER also plays a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose, with glucose-6-phosphatase, an enzyme present in SER, catalyzing the final step in glucose production in the liver.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) is a membranous organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It is a subset of the endomembrane system of the endoplasmic reticulum. Its main functions are the synthesis of lipids, steroid hormones, the detoxification of harmful metabolic byproducts and the storage and metabolism of calcium ions within the cell. The SER also plays a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose, with glucose-6-phosphatase, an enzyme present in SER, catalyzing the final step in glucose production in the liver.
All of the following statements are correct about Natural Killer (NK) Cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Correct E: Natural Killer (NK) Cells are lymphocytes in the same family as T and B cells, coming from a common progenitor.
Correct A: NK cells are classified as group I Innate Lymphocytes (ILCs) and respond quickly to a wide variety of pathological challenges. NK cells are best known for killing virally infected cells and detecting and controlling early signs of cancer
Correct D: Patients deficient in NK cells prove to be highly susceptible to early phases of herpes virus infection.
Incorrect C: NK cells are identified by expression of different cell-surface receptors and they are not a homogeneous population.
Correct E: Natural Killer (NK) Cells are lymphocytes in the same family as T and B cells, coming from a common progenitor.
Correct A: NK cells are classified as group I Innate Lymphocytes (ILCs) and respond quickly to a wide variety of pathological challenges. NK cells are best known for killing virally infected cells and detecting and controlling early signs of cancer
Correct D: Patients deficient in NK cells prove to be highly susceptible to early phases of herpes virus infection.
Incorrect C: NK cells are identified by expression of different cell-surface receptors and they are not a homogeneous population.
Regarding macrophage, which of the following is true?
Incorrect A: A macrophage is a large white blood cell that is an important part of our immune system.
Incorrect B: Macrophages are born from white blood cells called monocytes. Monocytes are a type of leukocyte or white blood cell. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages and myeloid lineage dendritic cells.
Incorrect C: Lymphocytes: These white blood cells include the following:
• B cells: Also known as B-lymphocytes, these cells produce antibodies to help the immune system mount a response to infection.
• T cells: Also known as T-lymphocytes, these white blood cells help recognize and remove infection-causing cells.
• Natural killer cells: These cells are responsible for attacking and killing viral cells, as well as cancer cells.
Incorrect D: The function of Microglia is Elimination of old or dead neurons and control of immunity in the brain
Correct E: Macrophages are able to detect products of bacteria and other microorganisms using a system of recognition receptors such as Toll-like receptors (TLRs).
Incorrect A: A macrophage is a large white blood cell that is an important part of our immune system.
Incorrect B: Macrophages are born from white blood cells called monocytes. Monocytes are a type of leukocyte or white blood cell. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages and myeloid lineage dendritic cells.
Incorrect C: Lymphocytes: These white blood cells include the following:
• B cells: Also known as B-lymphocytes, these cells produce antibodies to help the immune system mount a response to infection.
• T cells: Also known as T-lymphocytes, these white blood cells help recognize and remove infection-causing cells.
• Natural killer cells: These cells are responsible for attacking and killing viral cells, as well as cancer cells.
Incorrect D: The function of Microglia is Elimination of old or dead neurons and control of immunity in the brain
Correct E: Macrophages are able to detect products of bacteria and other microorganisms using a system of recognition receptors such as Toll-like receptors (TLRs).
Which of the following parts of the brain regulate sleep, hunger, and body temperature?
Incorrect A: The thalamus is the “central hub” of the brain. It receives outside information – all the senses except smell – and forwards it to other areas of the brain. It also helps manage motor and cognitive functions
Incorrect B: The amygdala manages emotions that have to do with survival – especially fear – and memory. It also triggers sexual desire and response.
Incorrect C: The functions of the cerebellum include:
• Learning
• Coordinating movement and balance
• Fine-tuning thoughts, emotions, touch, and other senses
Correct D: The hypothalamus, just below the thalamus, helps regulate sleep, hunger, and body temperature by sending instructions to produce hormones, including adrenaline.
Incorrect E: The functions of the brain stem, the oldest part of the brain, is essential to maintaining life:
• Breathing
• Heart rate and blood pressure
• Digestion
• Body temperature
Reticular activating system
Incorrect A: The thalamus is the “central hub” of the brain. It receives outside information – all the senses except smell – and forwards it to other areas of the brain. It also helps manage motor and cognitive functions
Incorrect B: The amygdala manages emotions that have to do with survival – especially fear – and memory. It also triggers sexual desire and response.
Incorrect C: The functions of the cerebellum include:
• Learning
• Coordinating movement and balance
• Fine-tuning thoughts, emotions, touch, and other senses
Correct D: The hypothalamus, just below the thalamus, helps regulate sleep, hunger, and body temperature by sending instructions to produce hormones, including adrenaline.
Incorrect E: The functions of the brain stem, the oldest part of the brain, is essential to maintaining life:
• Breathing
• Heart rate and blood pressure
• Digestion
• Body temperature
Reticular activating system
What is the substance of the cell wall in bacteria?
Almost all prokaryotes have a cell wall, a protective structure that allows them to survive in extreme conditions, which is located outside of their plasma membrane. In contrast, some eukaryotes do have cell walls, while others do not. The composition of the cell wall differs significantly between the domains Bacteria and Archaea. Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, a complex of protein and sugars, while archaeal cell walls are composed of polysaccharides (sugars). The composition of their cell walls also differs from the eukaryotic cell walls found in plants (cellulose) or fungi and insects (chitin). Some bacteria have an outer capsule outside the cell wall.
Almost all prokaryotes have a cell wall, a protective structure that allows them to survive in extreme conditions, which is located outside of their plasma membrane. In contrast, some eukaryotes do have cell walls, while others do not. The composition of the cell wall differs significantly between the domains Bacteria and Archaea. Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, a complex of protein and sugars, while archaeal cell walls are composed of polysaccharides (sugars). The composition of their cell walls also differs from the eukaryotic cell walls found in plants (cellulose) or fungi and insects (chitin). Some bacteria have an outer capsule outside the cell wall.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about notochord?
Correct A: It has also been found that the notochord serves important signaling functions during normal vertebrate embryogenesis
Correct B: The notochord extends the length of the organism, and allows for muscles to attach. This allows the lancelet to swim in fast bursts. Like the lancelet, all Chordate organisms develop a notochord at some point, although they may lose it later in life.
Correct C: The notochord is an elastic rod which extends through Chordate organisms, providing rigid support. In the more derived Chordates, the Vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by the vertebral column and becomes the cartilaginous substance between vertebrae.
Incorrect D: Other species retain the notochord throughout life and do not grow a vertebral column. These animals are known as invertebrate chordates. This group includes the lancelets, tunicates, and even some large fish like the sturgeon and coelacanth.
Correct E: The notochord is made of a number of different structural molecules including glycoproteins and resembles cartilage in many ways.
Correct A: It has also been found that the notochord serves important signaling functions during normal vertebrate embryogenesis
Correct B: The notochord extends the length of the organism, and allows for muscles to attach. This allows the lancelet to swim in fast bursts. Like the lancelet, all Chordate organisms develop a notochord at some point, although they may lose it later in life.
Correct C: The notochord is an elastic rod which extends through Chordate organisms, providing rigid support. In the more derived Chordates, the Vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by the vertebral column and becomes the cartilaginous substance between vertebrae.
Incorrect D: Other species retain the notochord throughout life and do not grow a vertebral column. These animals are known as invertebrate chordates. This group includes the lancelets, tunicates, and even some large fish like the sturgeon and coelacanth.
Correct E: The notochord is made of a number of different structural molecules including glycoproteins and resembles cartilage in many ways.
The wings of an insect are an example of ________
Correct A: Analogous structures are examples of convergent evolution, where two organisms separately have to solve the same evolutionary problem – such as staying hidden, flying, swimming, or conserving water – in similar ways. The wings of an insect, bird, and bat would all be analogous structures: they all evolved to allow flight, but they did not evolve at the same time since insects, birds, and mammals all evolved the ability to fly at different times.
Incorrect B: A matrix or hybrid structure is an organizational model that combines two or more reporting structures. It’s best suited for work environments that are dynamic, as hybrid structures can shift from project to project. Most commonly, the hybrid structure combines the functional and product organizational structures.
Incorrect C: Homologous structures are organs or skeletal elements of animals and organisms that, by virtue of their similarity, suggest their connection to a common ancestor. These structures do not have to look exactly the same or have the same function.
Incorrect D: A “vestigial structure” or “vestigial organ” is an anatomical feature or behavior that no longer seems to have a purpose in the current form of an organism of the given species. Often, these vestigial structures were organs that performed some important functions in the organism at one point in the past
Incorrect E: If the two versions are different, you have a heterozygous genotype for that gene. For example, being heterozygous for hair color could mean you have one allele for red hair and one allele for brown hair.
Correct A: Analogous structures are examples of convergent evolution, where two organisms separately have to solve the same evolutionary problem – such as staying hidden, flying, swimming, or conserving water – in similar ways. The wings of an insect, bird, and bat would all be analogous structures: they all evolved to allow flight, but they did not evolve at the same time since insects, birds, and mammals all evolved the ability to fly at different times.
Incorrect B: A matrix or hybrid structure is an organizational model that combines two or more reporting structures. It’s best suited for work environments that are dynamic, as hybrid structures can shift from project to project. Most commonly, the hybrid structure combines the functional and product organizational structures.
Incorrect C: Homologous structures are organs or skeletal elements of animals and organisms that, by virtue of their similarity, suggest their connection to a common ancestor. These structures do not have to look exactly the same or have the same function.
Incorrect D: A “vestigial structure” or “vestigial organ” is an anatomical feature or behavior that no longer seems to have a purpose in the current form of an organism of the given species. Often, these vestigial structures were organs that performed some important functions in the organism at one point in the past
Incorrect E: If the two versions are different, you have a heterozygous genotype for that gene. For example, being heterozygous for hair color could mean you have one allele for red hair and one allele for brown hair.
What fraction of F1 offspring will be EEFfgg when a cross is made between an EEffGg parent and an EeFFGg parent?
EEffGg × EeFFGg produces what fraction EEFfgg?
Fraction Ee =1
Fraction Ff = 1
Fraction gg = 1/4
Fraction EEFfgg
1 × 1 × 1/4 = 1/4
We can in theory solve a three loci problem like this using a Punnett square. But, this world be a huge undertaking in time, so we will use probabilities. You need to know your 1-allele cross ratio to use this method quickly (you should know these ratios for these 3 crosses off by heart –commit these 3, single allele crosses to memory) they are as follows:
1)
AA × AA = 1/1 AA
Or similarly,
aa × aa = 1/1 aa
Or similarly,
AA × aa = 1/1 Aa
2)
AA × Aa =1/2 AA, 1/2Aa
Or similarly,
Aa Aa = 1/2 Aa, 1/2 aa
3)
Aa × Aa= 1/4 Aa , 1/2 Aa, 1/4 aa
EEffGg × EeFFGg produces what fraction EEFfgg?
Fraction Ee =1
Fraction Ff = 1
Fraction gg = 1/4
Fraction EEFfgg
1 × 1 × 1/4 = 1/4
We can in theory solve a three loci problem like this using a Punnett square. But, this world be a huge undertaking in time, so we will use probabilities. You need to know your 1-allele cross ratio to use this method quickly (you should know these ratios for these 3 crosses off by heart –commit these 3, single allele crosses to memory) they are as follows:
1)
AA × AA = 1/1 AA
Or similarly,
aa × aa = 1/1 aa
Or similarly,
AA × aa = 1/1 Aa
2)
AA × Aa =1/2 AA, 1/2Aa
Or similarly,
Aa Aa = 1/2 Aa, 1/2 aa
3)
Aa × Aa= 1/4 Aa , 1/2 Aa, 1/4 aa
A parent has three children with different blood groups. Which of the following statements is correct about the birth of the next children?
Among births, three kinds of phenotypes should be found among births. So the possibilities are:
AO * BO
AB * AB
AB* AO
AB * BO
Incorrect A: it is true just for first intercourse.
Incorrect B: a half of births are heterozygous
Incorrect C: 3/4 births can give blood from A blood group
Among births, three kinds of phenotypes should be found among births. So the possibilities are:
AO * BO
AB * AB
AB* AO
AB * BO
Incorrect A: it is true just for first intercourse.
Incorrect B: a half of births are heterozygous
Incorrect C: 3/4 births can give blood from A blood group